Here's a thought for Senator Joe Lieberman and his staffers: the U.K. enacted health care reform circa 1948, creating the NHS, in a financial mode that has more or less stood the test of time (i.e. the consumer tastes of the nation).
Reforms, according to my quick scan, were discussed as early as 1942 (Beveridge Report).
So, tell me, was Britain a wealthy country, at the end of the war? Did they choose to wait, until days of surplus or plenty to do what made sense to them?